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Jew or Judean?

In John 4:7 Jesus is labeled by a Samaritan woman Ἰουδαῖος. This is the only place of the entire New Testament where Jesus is explicitly called that way. Since there are two possible translations of the word Ἰουδαῖος into English, namely Jew and Judean, a question arises: is Jesus recognized as a Jew or a Judean? At first glance the two do not vary too much. However, a detailed study of Jewish and non-Jewish writings from the times around the turn proves that the difference is substantial and that its meaning shifted in the ages. My hypothesis is that Ἰουδαῖος in the writings produced before the bar-Kochba revolt depicts rather Judeans, while in the later writings the better translation is Jew. Firstly, the difference between Jew and Judean. A Jew is a person that shares religious convictions with the other people under an umbrella term - Judaism, regardless his or her origin and place of living. A Judean, on the other hand refers to a person who was born/lives in Judea, regardless his or her actual religion. Secondly, it has been argued that before ca 135 CE the word Ἰουδαῖος has predominantly a geographic meaning and concerns the people that were born in Judea (regardless of what was their actual place of living or faith). After that, the Judean identity is blurred and the word Ἰουδαῑος receives more religious meaning (regardless of the origin of a person).

Since then both the time of narration and time of the author of the 4th Gospel happens to be before 135 CE, does it automatically mean that Jesus is called Judean and not Jew? Probably, but not necessarily. Among the arguments supporting this interpretation I'd list: a) geographical setting of the scene where the Judeans are confronted with the Samaritans and b) the fact that the woman could not recognize religion of Jesus watching him sitting on the well.

be patient

...work in progress...